18th Edition Practice Exam – Paper 2 (Inspection & Testing Focus)

1. Which regulation sets out periodic inspection and testing requirements?

A) 612.3 B) 653.1 C) 132.16 D) 651.2

2. Which of the following is a dead test?

A) Earth fault loop impedance (Zs) B) RCD trip time at 1×IΔn C) Insulation resistance D) Functional testing of switches

3. How is external earth fault loop impedance (Ze) typically measured?

A) At the origin with bonding disconnected B) At the furthest outlet under load C) Using continuity test leads on dead circuits D) At the main earthing terminal with load connected

4. Where is prospective fault current (PEFC) commonly measured?

A) Furthest point of the ring circuit B) At the origin between line and earth C) At socket outlets only D) Across neutral to earth at the load

5. Which method verifies continuity of circuit protective conductors?

A) RCD trip time at 5×IΔn B) Insulation resistance at 500 V DC C) Zs measurement D) Low resistance continuity test

6. Which is part of ring final circuit testing?

A) End-to-end continuity of each conductor B) 1000 V DC insulation test C) RCD ramp test only D) Ze test at each socket-outlet

7. Polarity testing confirms:

A) Line conductors are correctly connected and switched B) Circuit impedance is within limits C) Protective devices coordinate D) External influences are considered

8. Additional protection by RCD (≤30 mA) is required for:

A) All circuits B) Socket-outlets ≤32 A C) Lighting circuits only D) Motor circuits only

9. A standard RCD trip test at rated residual current uses:

A) 1 × IΔn B) 0.5 × IΔn C) 2 × IΔn D) 5 × IΔn only

10. Typical maximum trip time for a 30 mA RCD at 5×IΔn is:

A) 300 ms B) 200 ms C) 100 ms D) 40 ms

11. Which device combines overcurrent and residual current protection?

A) MCB B) RCD C) RCBO D) SPD

12. Zs compliance is checked against:

A) Cable colour code B) The maximum permitted Zs for the device C) Ze only D) Lighting lux levels

13. Polarity at socket-outlets ensures:

A) Line connects to the right terminal and earth to CPC B) The device trips at 5×IΔn C) The Ze is minimal D) The cable is armoured

14. PSCC is measured:

A) CPC to neutral at the furthest point B) Neutral to earth at the load C) Line to earth at a socket D) Line to neutral at the origin

15. On completion of a new installation, which certificate is issued?

A) Minor Works Certificate B) EICR C) Electrical Installation Certificate D) Danger Notice

16. Minor alterations to a circuit should be certified using:

A) Minor Works Certificate B) Electrical Installation Certificate C) EICR D) Method Statement

17. After periodic inspection and testing, what document is issued?

A) EIC B) EICR C) MEIWC D) CE Declaration

18. Which regulation requires certification after inspection and testing?

A) 612.3 B) 537.3 C) 411.3.2 D) 653.1

19. What should be included with an EIC?

A) Only designer’s signature B) Schedules of inspections and test results C) PAT labels D) Manufacturer CE statements

20. Which Part covers safety notices and labels?

A) Part 3 B) Part 4 C) Part 5 (514) D) Part 8

21. Before testing, instruments should be:

A) Stored cold B) Calibrated or verified C) Used only on live tests D) Set to AC range for all tests

22. Safe isolation includes:

A) Prove dead and re‑prove the tester B) Use neon screwdriver only C) Rely on labels D) Switch off without locks

23. Safety documentation availability is covered by:

A) 132.1 B) 536.4 C) 443.4 D) 514.9

24. Minimum IP rating for equipment in bathroom Zone 1 is:

A) IPX2 B) IPX4 C) IPX5 D) IPX7

25. Prosumer installations are addressed in:

A) Part 3 B) Part 5 C) Part 8 D) Section 722

26. AFDDs primarily protect against:

A) Arc faults B) Overvoltages C) Overload only D) Earth leakage only

27. Voltage drop must be considered during design under:

A) 521.10.202 B) 525.1 C) 536.4 D) 514.9

28. Mechanical protection of cables is required under:

A) 525.1 B) 523.1 C) 521.10.202 D) 522.6.1

29. Current-carrying capacity considerations are covered by:

A) 522.6.1 B) 523.1 C) 536.4 D) 514.9

30. SPDs are required when consequences of overvoltage could be serious under:

A) 415.1 B) 536.4 C) 443.4 D) 132.5

31. A common method to obtain R1+R2 is to:

A) Measure Zs then subtract Ze B) Link line and CPC at the origin and measure at outlets C) Use 1000 V DC insulation test D) Measure neutral–earth voltage

32. A discontinuity in a ring final circuit is indicated by:

A) Zero or widely unequal figure-of-eight readings B) Correct polarity everywhere C) Low insulation resistance only D) Balanced R1+R2 values

33. If sensitive equipment cannot be disconnected, insulation resistance may be tested at:

A) 1000 V DC L–N B) 500 V DC L–N only C) 50 V AC D) 250 V DC L+N to PE

34. Ze measurements primarily confirm:

A) Voltage drop B) Supply earthing arrangement and magnitude C) RCD type D) Wiring colours

35. Protective devices must have a breaking capacity not less than:

A) Ze B) Zs C) Prospective short-circuit current D) Rated load current

36. A neutral–earth reversal at a socket is detected by:

A) Polarity testing B) Ze test C) RCD ramp test D) Visual inspection only

37. Functional testing verifies:

A) Insulation resistance values B) Zs is below maximum C) RCD trip time D) Correct operation of equipment

38. In areas with vibration, select:

A) Rigid PVC twin‑and‑earth only B) Mineral insulated only C) Flexible cables with strain relief D) Neutral‑switched devices

39. A schedule of test results should include:

A) Manufacturer brochures B) PAT test dates C) Circuit test data (e.g., Zs, IR, RCD) D) Lighting design lux calculations only

40. Types of wiring systems and erection are addressed in:

A) 528 B) 524 C) 521 D) 536

41. When cables run near heat sources, designers should:

A) Ignore temperature B) Reduce voltage C) Increase RCD rating D) Provide separation/insulation and apply derating

42. Multiple circuits grouped together generally require:

A) No adjustment B) Grouping derating factor C) Higher Ze D) SPD installation

43. Cables fully surrounded by thermal insulation should be:

A) Left unchanged B) Protected by AFDD C) Derated or rerouted D) Connected in aluminium only

44. Installation method affects current‑carrying capacity because:

A) Heat dissipation differs by method B) Colour changes conductivity C) AFDDs require it D) SPDs require it

45. High ambient temperature requires:

A) Lower Ze B) Higher RCD rating C) AFDD installation D) Temperature derating factors

46. When cables are grouped and surrounded by insulation:

A) Only grouping factor applies B) Only voltage drop applies C) Multiple correction factors apply D) No correction needed

47. Clipped direct installation typically offers:

A) Higher current‑carrying capacity B) Lower capacity than buried C) Same as in conduit D) Least capacity of all methods

48. Cables in trunking require:

A) No correction B) Lighting factors C) SPD protection D) Enclosed wiring capacity tables and grouping

49. Thermal insulation effects depend on:

A) Cable colour B) Insulation thickness and coverage C) RCD trip curve D) SPD voltage rating

50. To maximise cable capacity, routing should:

A) Be near radiators B) Be under insulation C) Avoid heat sources and allow cooling D) Use neutral switching

51. Voltage drop increases mainly with:

A) Higher Ze B) Lower ambient temperature C) AFDD presence D) Circuit length and current

52. A common mitigation for excessive voltage drop is to:

A) Increase conductor CSA B) Change cable colour C) Install SPD D) Install AFDD

53. For three‑phase circuits, voltage drop calculation should:

A) Use single‑phase tables only B) Ignore power factor C) Use three‑phase tables and include power factor D) Use Ze value only

54. Power factor affects voltage drop because:

A) It changes Ze B) It changes device curve C) It alters colour coding D) Reactive impedance contributes to drop

55. Balanced three‑phase loads help by:

A) Reducing neutral currents B) Increasing Ze C) Replacing RCDs D) Eliminating grouping factors

56. Excessive length can be mitigated by:

A) Changing cable colour B) Raising ambient temperature C) Splitting circuits with local distribution D) Neutral switching

57. Outdoor UV exposure requires:

A) Increased Ze B) Neutral switching C) UV‑resistant cables/enclosures D) SPD installation only

58. Where mechanical damage risk is high, cables should be:

A) Surface‑mounted without protection B) Armoured or enclosed C) Painted only D) Neutral‑switched

59. In escape routes, cable fixings should be:

A) Plastic clip‑only B) Adhesive‑only C) Decorative D) Fire‑resistant and mechanically robust

60. Cables routed near hot water pipes should:

A) Be separated/insulated and derated B) Be painted C) Use neutral switching D) Ignore temperature

WOODS-TEC

18th Edition Wiring Regulations Practice Exam – Paper 2

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